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CISF, BSF, SSB, head constable ministerial question paper in english pdf

 Head constable ministerial question paper in english pdf Practice and Model set for CISF ,SSB and BSF



GENERAL INTELLIGENCE 


Q1 In the following question, select the number which can be  placed at the sign of question  mark (?) from the given alternatives. 




2. How many rectangels are there  in the given figure? 

















3. A word is represented by only  one set of numbers as given in  any one of the alternatives. The  sets of numbers given in the  alternatives are represented by  two classes of alphabets as  shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of  Matrix-I are numbered from 0  to 4 and that of Matrix-II are  numbered from 5 to 9. A letter  from these matrices can be represented first by its row and  next by its column, for example ‘O’ can be represented by  12, 76 etc and ‘H’ can be represeted by 31, 68 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set  for the word ‘CARAT’. 


4. From the given answer figures,  select the one in which the  question figure hidden/embedded. 


5. Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure? 

6. If a mirror is placed on the line  AB, then which of the answer  figures is the right image of the  given figure? 

 Question Figure: 



7. A piece of paper is folded and  punched as shown below in  the question figures. From the  given answer figures, indicate  how it will appear when  opened.  

                                                  Question Figures: 

8. If '×' means '–', '+' means '×'  and '–' means '+', then  10 + (4 × 2) – 15 =? 

(1) 28     (2) 20      (3) 35     (4) 32 

 9. If 4 – 3 – 2 = 24 and 6 – 1 – 2 =  12, then 5 – 4 – 1 =?  

(1) 10       (2) 9        (3) 24     (4) 20 

10. Arrange the given words in the  sequence in which they occur  in the dictionary.  
1. Attack 2. Amby  3. Agree 4. Attire  5. Angry
  (1) 32514 (2) 32541  (3) 41352 (4) 14352  

11. In the following question, select the missing number from  the given alternatives.  4, 12, 36,?, 324, 972 

 (1) 72 (2) 84  (3) 108 (4) 144  


12. A series is given with one term  missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones  that will complete the series.  NAT, LCR, JEP, HGN,?

  (1) GHL (2) FIL  (3) FHM (4) GIM  


13. In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.  

(1) Monitor (2) Mouse  (3) Keyboard (4) Joystick  

14. In the following question, select the odd number pair from  the given alternatives.  

(1) 147: 12 (2) 246: 12  (3) 358: 18 (4) 293: 14


  15. In the following question, select the odd letters from the  given alternatives.  

(1) DGJM (2) CFIL  (3) BEHK (4) BHKN  

16. Identify the diagram that best  represents the relationship  among the given classes.  
17. In the following question, select the related word from the  given alternatives.  School: Education:: Court  :?  

(1) Justice (2) Lawyer  (3) Law (4) Judge 

18. In the following question, select the related number from  the given alternatives.  9: 4:: 25:? 

 (1) 49 (2) 9  (3) 16 (4) 36 

 19. In the following question, select the related letters from the  given alternatives. 

 SI: UF:: KP:?  

(1) MN (2) MM  (3) NM (4) NN  

20. In the following question, select the word which cannot be  formed using the letters of the  given word. 
 UNFORGETTABLE 

 (1) TABLE (2) FORM  (3) FORGET (4) FORGE  

21. A is father of B. B is son of E.  F is sister of E. G is daughter  of F. How is B related to F?  

(1) Nephew (2) Husband  (3) Father (4) Son  

22. Simran walks 10 km towards  north. She turns right and  walks another 10 km. She  turns right and walks another  10 km. In which direction is  she from her starting point? 

 (1) West  (2) East  (3) South  (4) Cannot be determined 

23. In the following question below are given some state-ments  followed by some Conclusions.  Taking the given statements to  be true even if they seem to be  at variance from commonly  known facts, read all the Conclusions and then decide  which of the given Conclusion  logically follows the given  statements.

  Statements: 
 All pens are pencils.  
All pencils are tables. 

 Conclusions: 
 I. Some tables are pens. 
 II. Some pencils are tables.  


(1) Only Conclusion I follows.  (2) Only Conclusion II follo-ws.  
(3) Both Conclusion follows.  (4) Neither Conclusion I nor  Conclusion II follows. 

24. In a certain code language,  “EXTRA” is written as “GZVTC”. How is “STRONG” written in that code language? 

 (1) UVTQP I (2) UVUQPI  (3) UVTQPJ (4) UVTRPI 

 25. In a certain code language,  “ROME” is written as  “1815135” and “SAME” is written as “191135”. How is “PLAY”  written in that code language?  

(1) 1612124 (2) 1612125  (3) 1612225 (4) 1712124 

ARITHMETIC 

26. What is the unit digit of  342 × 743 + 175?  

(1) 1 (2) 2  (3) 3 (4) 7  



 29. Which one is the largest fraction among  3 / 4  ,  7/ 8 and  5/ 6?  

(1)  3 / 4 (2)  7/ 8  (3)  5 / 6 (4) All are equal 

 30. Which of the given values is  completely divisible by 18?  

(1) 1642 (2) 3612  (3) 7218 (4) 2427 



32. X alone can complete a work  in 6 days and Y alone can complete the same work in 30 days.  If X and Y work together, then  in how many days work will be  completed? 

(1) 5  (2) 4   (3) 6  (4) 4.5  

33. C and D together can complete  a work in 8 days. D alone can  complete the work in 40 days.  In how many days C alone can  complete the same work? 
 (1) 16 (2) 12  (3) 14 (4) 10 

 34. If the diagonal of a square is  15 cm, then what is the area  (in cm2) of the square?  
(1) 112.5 (2) 250  (3) 15 ⇃2 (4) 30 ⇃2 

 35. Marked price of an article is  40% more than its cost price.  If a discount of 45% is given,  then what will be the loss percentage? 
 (1) 23   (2) 29    (3) 19   (4) 25 

 36. Selling price of an article is Rs  2695. If 23% discount is given, then what is the marked  price (in Rs)?  
(1) 3700 (2) 3100  (3) 3500 (4) 3800  

37. Total runs scored by three  players A, B and C are 1800.  Ratio of runs scored by A and  B is 5: 7 and B and C is 3: 2.  How much runs are scored by  A?  
(1) 756   (2) 612    (3) 562   (4) 540  

38. Monthly income of X and Y is  in ratio of 5: 11 respectively.  The difference in their income  is Rs 24000. What will be the  monthly income of Y? 
 (1) 44000 (2) 20000  (3) 22000 (4) 33000 

 39. Average of 9 consecutive numbers is 37. What is the smallest number out of these 9?  

(1) 26 (2) 38  (3) 29 (4) 33 

 40. If the cost price of 5 articles is  equal to the selling price of 8  articles, then what is the loss  percentage (in%)? 
 (1) 40  (2) 37.5   (3) 50  (4) 56.25 

41. A man gains 25% by selling an  article at a certain price. If he  sells the same article at half  the price, then what is the loss  percentage? 
(1) 62.5 (2) 27.5  (3) 37.5 (4) 32.5  

42. If the length of a rectangle is  increased by 25%, then by how  much percent breadth should  be reduced so that the area  remains the same?  
(1) 15 (2) 20  (3) 12.5 (4) 25

  43. 1008 is what percent of 7200? 
 (1) 11 (2) 12  (3) 15 (4) 14

  44. A train is moving at a speed of  84 km/hr and covers a certain  distance in 12 hours. If the  same distance is to be covered  in 14 hours, then what will be  the speed (in km/hr) of the  train? 

 (1) 72 (2) 76  (3) 66 (4) 60 


 45. Speed of a boat is 6 km/hr in  still water and the speed of the  stream is 3 km/hr. If the boat  takes 8 hours to go to a place  and come back, then what is  the distance (in km) of the  place?  

(1) 12 (2) 18  (3) 24 (4) 15 

 46. An amount of Rs 35000 is invested in a scheme of compound interest. If rate of interest is 20% per annum, then  what will be the amount (in  Rs) obtained after 2 years?  

(1) 56200 (2) 50400  (3) 48600 (4) 42500 


 Directions (47-50): The bar  chart given below shows the stock  of 5 different types of shoes in a  store. 

47. S6 are what percent of total  number of shoes?  
(1) 60 (2) 30  (3) 20 (4) 25 

48. What is the average number of  shoes of all 6 types of shoes? 
 (1) 166.67 (2) 333.33  (3) 116.66 (4) 163.33  

49. S4 is what percent of S3? 
 (1) 90 (2) 80  (3) 70 (4) 75 

 50. S2 are how much percent more  than S5? 
 (1) 350 (2) 150  (3) 250 (4) 300 

GENERAL ENGLISH 

Directions (51–52): In the following questions, some part of the  sentence may have errors. Find out  which part of the sentence has an  error and select the appro-priate  option. If a sentence is free from  error, select ‘No Error’.  
51. Let’s resolve to break (1)/ free  at the prejudice (2)/ we build  up in our minds. (3)/ No Error  (4)  

52. Flying above oceans is (1)/ one  of the challenges of the new  (2)/ air-traffic control technology. (3)/ No Error (4) 


 Directions (53–54): In the following questions, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an  appropriate word. Select the correct  alternative out of the four. 

 53. _______ she invited me, I would  have gone to the meeting. 
(1) unless (2) if  (3) although (4) had  

54. She prayed that her sister  _____  safely. 
 (1) might arrive  (2) would arrive  (3) arrived  (4) may arrive 

 Directions (55–57): In the following questions, out of the given  four alternatives, select the one  which best expresses the meaning  of the given word. 

 55. Attribute  (1) Praise  (2) Commend  (3) Applaud  (4) Characteristic  

56. Judicious  (1) Cautious (2) Hasty  (3) Unwise (4) Reckless 

57. Inspire  (1) Discourage  (2) Dissuade  (3) Demoralize  (4) animate  

Directions (58–60): In the following questions, out of the given  four alternatives, select the one  which is opposite in meaning of the  given word. 
 58. Resume  (1) Finish (2) Biography  (3) Summary (4) Review 

59. Mediocre  (1) Common  (2) Decent  (3) Moderate  (4) Exceptional  

60. Paradox  (1) Mistake (2) Error  (3) Anomaly (4) Evidence

  Directions (61–62): In the following questions, out of the four  given alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the  meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.  

61. Oily tongue  
(1) Hidden enemy  (2) Foolish  (3) Talk plainly  (4) Flattery 

 62. Hand in glove 
 (1) In close association  (2) Secret  (3) Attempt to deceive  (4) False praise  Directions (63–64): Improve  the bracketed part of the sentence.  

63. A rolling stone (gather no)  moss. 
 (1) Gathered many  (2) Gathering much  (3) Gathers no  (4) No improvement 

 64. He was not allowed to get up  from his bed (no more).  
(1) Any upper  (2) Any more  (3) Any farther  (4) No improvement 

Directions (65–66): In the following questions, out of the four  given alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute  of the phrase. 

65. A hater of women 
 (1) Nihilist  (2) Misogynist  (3) Jurist  (4) Feminist 


 66. A person who works against  his country 
 (1) Terrorist (2) Druggist  (3) Cavalry (4) Traitor 

 Directions (67–68): In the following questions, a word has been  written in four different ways out of  which only one is correctly spelt.  Select the correctly spelt word. 

 67. (1) Routine (2) Ruotine  (3) Routene (4) Routeen  

68. (1) Permanint  (2) Purmanent  (3) Parmanat  (4) Permanent  Directions


 (69–70): Rearrange  the parts of the sentence in correct  order.  

69. The Bhagavad Gita  P. of man and  Q. recognizes the nature  R. the needs of man  

(1) QPR (2) PRQ  (3) PQR (4) RQP  

70. We must  P. be in a position  Q. to respect a  R. man as a man  
(1) PRQ (2) QPR  (3) PQR (4) RQP 

 Directions (71–75): In the following passage some of the words  have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct  answer for the given blank out of  the four alternatives.  

The (71) of Harappa and Indus  Valley in India is believed to be (72)  than 4000 years old. The Rig Vedic  period started at around 1700 B.C.  India was highly civilized and well  (73) by 500 B.C. India (74) a golden  period under Gupta Empire during  320 A.D and 500 A.D. The Delhi  Sultanate ruled from 1206 to 1526.  The Mughal period was (75) 1526  to 1857. 

71. (1) society  (2) community  (3) civilization  (4) colony 

72. (1) more  (2) around  (3) somewhere  (4) clearer  

73. (1) developing (2) developed  (3) decorated (4) decorating  

74. (1) seen (2) confessed  (3) operated (4) witnessed 

75. (1) for (2) from  (3) since (4) towards 

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE 

76. An area which supports the  economy and export trade of a  sea port is called its  ______.  
(1) Trade land  (2) Export land  (3) Import land  (4) Hinter land  

77. Process making of bricks by  using soil comes under which  sector of economic activity?  
(1) Secondary sector  (2) Primary sector  (3) Tertiary sector  (4) None of these 

 78. From the following which order is correct based on the increasing Level of governa-nce? 

 I. Panchayat Samiti
  II. Zila Parishad 
 III. Gram Sabha 

 (1) I < II < III    (2) III < I < II  
(3) I < III < II      (4) II < I < III  

79. In Indian constitution, which  article prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion,  race, caste, sex (or) place of  birth?  
(1) Article 5 (2) Article 1  (3) Article 15 (4) Article 20  

80. Where did Gautam Buddha finally attained enlightenment? 

 (1) Sarnath (2) Bodh Gaya  (3) Varanasi (4) Lumbini  

81. In which year did the Indian  National Congress Party Split  referred as Surat Split took  place?  (1) 1904 (2) 1907  (3) 1910 (4) 1919 

 82. What is the another name of  Pole Star? 

(1) South Star  (2) West Star  (3) East Star  (4) North Star  

83. Maps showing specific information such as Rainfall maps,  Highway maps, etc are known  as _____ maps.  
(1) Relief (2) Political  (3) Thematic (4) Symbolic 

 84. Calcium deficiency mainly occurs in the absence of which  vitamin?  

(1) Vitamin D  (2) Vitamin B6 
 (3) Vitamin C  (4) Vitamin A  

85. In which type of venation design is vet-like on both sides  of the mid-rib? 

 (1) Reticulate Venation  (2) Parallel Venation 
 (3) Transpiration  (4) None of these  

86. In a closed circulatory system,  blood is completely enclosed  within  __________.  

(1) the skeleton  (2) Sinuses 
 (3) Blood Vessels  (4) Heart 

 87. A photocell converts light energy into  __________.  

(1) chemical energy  (2) electrical energy  
(3) potential energy  (4) kinetic energy 

 88. A flying aeroplane has  _______.  

(1) only potential energy  (2) only kinetic energy  
(3) both potential and kinetic  energy  (4) neither potential nor kinetic 

89. What is the full form HTTP?  

(1) Hyper Text Transfer Protocol  (2) Hyper Text Textual Protocol  
(3) Hyper Test Transfer Protocol  (4) Hyper Text Transfer Program 

90. What is obtained on adding  quick lime to H2O?

 (1) Lime water  (2) lime stone  
(3) Slaked lime  (4) None of these  

91. pH of lemon juice is 4, that  means it is  _____. 

 (1) Basic (2) Acidic  
(3) Neutral  (4) None of these  

92. How do forests mainly help the  soil from being washed away  or eroded? 

 (1) By the roots of trees in forests that binds the soil  
(2) By maintaining steady supply of water  
(3) By maintaining water table  
(4) None of these 

 93. Which article of Indian constitution is related to the formation of new states?  
(1) Article 9 (2) Article 12  (3) Article 3 (4) Article 22 

94. Who among the following was  the main contributer in building and improvising Telescopes? 

 (1) Edison (2) Newton  (3) Galileo (4) Marconi  


95. In which year India hosted the  Commonwealth Games? 
 (1) 2010 (2) 2014  (3) 2016 (4) 2012  

96. Which among the following  dances incorporates martial  arts steps and techniques?  
(1) Mohiniyattam  (2) Odissi  (3) Chhau  (4) Kuchipudi 

97. In India, the power to declare  war against another country is  vested in  

a. President  b. Prime Minister 
 c. Defence Minister  Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 

 (1) Only c  (2) Both a and c  (3) Both a and b  (4) Only a 

98. ____ designed in 1971 is generally considered as the first  computer virus.  

(1) Maurice  (2) Creeper  (3) Melisa  (4) Trojan Horse  

99. "Sir Creek Issue" is a issue between India and  __________.  
(1) China  (2) Pakistan  (3) Afghanistan  (4) Japan 

 100. Gulf of Mannar separates India with which of its neighbouring countries? 
 (1) Sri Lanka  (2) Bangladesh  (3) Pakistan  (4) Maldives 


ANSWERS  1. (2)  2. (4)  3. (2)  4. (2)   5. (3) 6. (3) 7. (1) 8. (3)  9. (4) 10. (1) 11. (3) 12. (2)  13. (1) 14. (3)  15. (4)  16. (2)   17. (1)  18. (3)  19. (2) 20. (2)  21. (1) 22. (2) 23. (3) 24. (1)  25. (2) 26. (1) 27. (3) 28. (1)  29. (2) 30. (3) 31. (1) 32. (1)  33. (4) 34. (1) 35. (1) 36. (3)  37. (4) 38. (1) 39. (4) 40. (2)  41. (3) 42. (2) 43. (4) 44. (1)  45. (2) 46. (2) 47. (2) 48. (1)  49. (4) 50. (3) 51. (2) 52. (1)  53. (4) 54. (1) 55. (4) 56. (1)  57. (4) 58. (1) 59. (4) 60. (4)  61. (4) 62. (1) 63. (3) 64. (2)  65. (2) 66. (4) 67. (1) 68. (4)  69. (1) 70. (3) 71. (3) 72. (1)  73. (2) 74. (4) 75. (2) 76. (4)  77. (1) 78. (2) 79. (3) 80. (2)  81. (2) 82. (4) 83. (3) 84. (1)  85. (1) 86. (3) 87. (2) 88. (3)  89. (1) 90. (3) 91. (2) 92. (1)  93. (3) 94. (3) 95. (1) 96. (3)  97. (4) 98. (2)  99. (2)  100. (1) 













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