Head constable ministerial question paper in english pdf Practice and Model set for CISF ,SSB and BSF
GENERAL INTELLIGENCE
Q1. In the following question, select the number which can be placed at the sign of question mark (?) from the given alternatives.
2. How many rectangles are there in the given figure?
3. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix-I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix-II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example ‘O’ can be represented by 12, 76 etc and ‘H’ can be represeted by 31, 68 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word ‘CARAT’.
4. From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure hidden/embedded.
5. Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?
6. If a mirror is placed on the line AB, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?
Question Figure:
Question Figures:
8. If '×' means '–', '+' means '×' and '–' means '+', then 10 + (4 × 2) – 15 =?
(1) 28 (2) 20 (3) 35 (4) 32
9. If 4 – 3 – 2 = 24 and 6 – 1 – 2 = 12, then 5 – 4 – 1 =?
(1) 10 (2) 9 (3) 24 (4) 20
10. Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.
1. Attack 2. Amby 3. Agree 4. Attire 5. Angry
(1) 32514 (2) 32541 (3) 41352 (4) 14352
11. In the following question, select the missing number from the given alternatives. 4, 12, 36,?, 324, 972
(1) 72 (2) 84 (3) 108 (4) 144
12. A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. NAT, LCR, JEP, HGN,?
(1) GHL (2) FIL (3) FHM (4) GIM
13. In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.
(1) Monitor (2) Mouse (3) Keyboard (4) Joystick
14. In the following question, select the odd number pair from the given alternatives.
(1) 147: 12 (2) 246: 12 (3) 358: 18 (4) 293: 14
15. In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.
(1) DGJM (2) CFIL (3) BEHK (4) BHKN
16. Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among the given classes.
17. In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.
School: Education:: Court :?
(1) Justice (2) Lawyer (3) Law (4) Judge
18. In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives. 9: 4:: 25:?
(1) 49 (2) 9 (3) 16 (4) 36
19. In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.
SI: UF:: KP:?
(1) MN (2) MM (3) NM (4) NN
20. In the following question, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.
UNFORGETTABLE
(1) TABLE (2) FORM (3) FORGET (4) FORGE
21. A is father of B. B is son of E. F is sister of E. G is daughter of F. How is B related to F?
(1) Nephew (2) Husband (3) Father (4) Son
22. Simran walks 10 km towards north. She turns right and walks another 10 km. She turns right and walks another 10 km. In which direction is she from her starting point?
(1) West (2) East (3) South (4) Cannot be determined
23. In the following question below are given some state-ments followed by some Conclusions. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, read all the Conclusions and then decide which of the given Conclusion logically follows the given statements.
Statements:
All pens are pencils.
All pencils are tables.
Conclusions:
I. Some tables are pens.
II. Some pencils are tables.
(1) Only Conclusion I follows.
(2) Only Conclusion II follo-ws.
(3) Both Conclusion follows.
(4) Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II follows.
24. In a certain code language, “EXTRA” is written as “GZVTC”. How is “STRONG” written in that code language?
(1) UVTQP I (2) UVUQPI (3) UVTQPJ (4) UVTRPI
25. In a certain code language, “ROME” is written as “1815135” and “SAME” is written as “191135”. How is “PLAY” written in that code language?
(1) 1612124 (2) 1612125 (3) 1612225 (4) 1712124
ARITHMETIC
26. What is the unit digit of 342 × 743 + 175?
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 7
29. Which one is the largest fraction among 3 / 4 , 7/ 8 and 5/ 6?
(1) 3 / 4 (2) 7/ 8 (3) 5 / 6 (4) All are equal
30. Which of the given values is completely divisible by 18?
(1) 1642 (2) 3612 (3) 7218 (4) 2427
32. X alone can complete a work in 6 days and Y alone can complete the same work in 30 days. If X and Y work together, then in how many days work will be completed?
(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 4.5
33. C and D together can complete a work in 8 days. D alone can complete the work in 40 days. In how many days C alone can complete the same work?
(1) 16 (2) 12 (3) 14 (4) 10
34. If the diagonal of a square is 15 cm, then what is the area (in cm2) of the square?
(1) 112.5 (2) 250 (3) 15 ⇃2 (4) 30 ⇃2
35. Marked price of an article is 40% more than its cost price. If a discount of 45% is given, then what will be the loss percentage?
(1) 23 (2) 29 (3) 19 (4) 25
36. Selling price of an article is Rs 2695. If 23% discount is given, then what is the marked price (in Rs)?
(1) 3700 (2) 3100 (3) 3500 (4) 3800
37. Total runs scored by three players A, B and C are 1800. Ratio of runs scored by A and B is 5: 7 and B and C is 3: 2. How much runs are scored by A?
(1) 756 (2) 612 (3) 562 (4) 540
38. Monthly income of X and Y is in ratio of 5: 11 respectively. The difference in their income is Rs 24000. What will be the monthly income of Y?
(1) 44000 (2) 20000 (3) 22000 (4) 33000
39. Average of 9 consecutive numbers is 37. What is the smallest number out of these 9?
(1) 26 (2) 38 (3) 29 (4) 33
40. If the cost price of 5 articles is equal to the selling price of 8 articles, then what is the loss percentage (in%)?
(1) 40 (2) 37.5 (3) 50 (4) 56.25
41. A man gains 25% by selling an article at a certain price. If he sells the same article at half the price, then what is the loss percentage?
(1) 62.5 (2) 27.5 (3) 37.5 (4) 32.5
42. If the length of a rectangle is increased by 25%, then by how much percent breadth should be reduced so that the area remains the same?
(1) 15 (2) 20 (3) 12.5 (4) 25
43. 1008 is what percent of 7200?
(1) 11 (2) 12 (3) 15 (4) 14
44. A train is moving at a speed of 84 km/hr and covers a certain distance in 12 hours. If the same distance is to be covered in 14 hours, then what will be the speed (in km/hr) of the train?
(1) 72 (2) 76 (3) 66 (4) 60
45. Speed of a boat is 6 km/hr in still water and the speed of the stream is 3 km/hr. If the boat takes 8 hours to go to a place and come back, then what is the distance (in km) of the place?
(1) 12 (2) 18 (3) 24 (4) 15
46. An amount of Rs 35000 is invested in a scheme of compound interest. If rate of interest is 20% per annum, then what will be the amount (in Rs) obtained after 2 years?
(1) 56200 (2) 50400 (3) 48600 (4) 42500
Directions (47-50): The bar chart given below shows the stock of 5 different types of shoes in a store.
47. S6 are what percent of total number of shoes?
(1) 60 (2) 30 (3) 20 (4) 25
48. What is the average number of shoes of all 6 types of shoes?
(1) 166.67 (2) 333.33 (3) 116.66 (4) 163.33
49. S4 is what percent of S3?
(1) 90 (2) 80 (3) 70 (4) 75
50. S2 are how much percent more than S5?
(1) 350 (2) 150 (3) 250 (4) 300
GENERAL ENGLISH
Directions (51–52): In the following questions, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appro-priate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No Error’.
51. Let’s resolve to break (1)/ free at the prejudice (2)/ we build up in our minds. (3)/ No Error (4)
52. Flying above oceans is (1)/ one of the challenges of the new (2)/ air-traffic control technology. (3)/ No Error (4)
Directions (53–54): In the following questions, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four.
53. _______ she invited me, I would have gone to the meeting.
(1) unless (2) if (3) although (4) had
54. She prayed that her sister _____ safely.
(1) might arrive (2) would arrive (3) arrived (4) may arrive
Directions (55–57): In the following questions, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.
55. Attribute
(1) Praise (2) Commend (3) Applaud (4) Characteristic
56. Judicious
(1) Cautious (2) Hasty (3) Unwise (4) Reckless
57. Inspire
(1) Discourage (2) Dissuade (3) Demoralize (4) animate
Directions (58–60): In the following questions, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which is opposite in meaning of the given word.
58. Resume
(1) Finish (2) Biography (3) Summary (4) Review
59. Mediocre
(1) Common (2) Decent (3) Moderate (4) Exceptional
60. Paradox
(1) Mistake (2) Error (3) Anomaly (4) Evidence
Directions (61–62): In the following questions, out of the four given alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.
61. Oily tongue
(1) Hidden enemy (2) Foolish (3) Talk plainly (4) Flattery
62. Hand in glove
(1) In close association (2) Secret (3) Attempt to deceive (4) False praise Directions (63–64): Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.
63. A rolling stone (gather no) moss.
(1) Gathered many (2) Gathering much (3) Gathers no (4) No improvement
64. He was not allowed to get up from his bed (no more).
(1) Any upper (2) Any more (3) Any farther (4) No improvement
Directions (65–66): In the following questions, out of the four given alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the phrase.
65. A hater of women
(1) Nihilist (2) Misogynist (3) Jurist (4) Feminist
66. A person who works against his country
(1) Terrorist (2) Druggist (3) Cavalry (4) Traitor
Directions (67–68): In the following questions, a word has been written in four different ways out of which only one is correctly spelt. Select the correctly spelt word.
67. (1) Routine (2) Ruotine (3) Routene (4) Routeen
68. (1) Permanint (2) Purmanent (3) Parmanat (4) Permanent Directions
(69–70): Rearrange the parts of the sentence in correct order.
69. The Bhagavad Gita P.) of man and Q.) recognizes the nature R.) the needs of man
(1) QPR (2) PRQ (3) PQR (4) RQP
70. We must P). be in a position Q). to respect a R). man as a man
(1) PRQ (2) QPR (3) PQR (4) RQP
Directions (71–75): In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.
The ....(71) of Harappa and Indus Valley in India is believed to be.... (72) than 4000 years old. The Rig Vedic period started at around 1700 B.C. India was highly civilized and well ....(73) by 500 B.C. India ....(74) a golden period under Gupta Empire during 320 A.D and 500 A.D. The Delhi Sultanate ruled from 1206 to 1526. The Mughal period was ........(75) 1526 to 1857.
71. (1) society (2) community (3) civilization (4) colony
72. (1) more (2) around (3) somewhere (4) clearer
73. (1) developing (2) developed (3) decorated (4) decorating
74. (1) seen (2) confessed (3) operated (4) witnessed
75. (1) for (2) from (3) since (4) towards
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
76. An area which supports the economy and export trade of a sea port is called its ______.
(1) Trade land (2) Export land (3) Import land (4) Hinter land
77. Process making of bricks by using soil comes under which sector of economic activity?
(1) Secondary sector (2) Primary sector (3) Tertiary sector (4) None of these
78. From the following which order is correct based on the increasing Level of governa-nce?
I. Panchayat Samiti
II. Zila Parishad
III. Gram Sabha
(1) I < II < III (2) III < I < II
(3) I < III < II (4) II < I < III
79. In Indian constitution, which article prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex (or) place of birth?
(1) Article 5 (2) Article 1 (3) Article 15 (4) Article 20
80. Where did Gautam Buddha finally attained enlightenment?
(1) Sarnath (2) Bodh Gaya (3) Varanasi (4) Lumbini
81. In which year did the Indian National Congress Party Split referred as Surat Split took place?
(1) 1904 (2) 1907 (3) 1910 (4) 1919
82. What is the another name of Pole Star?
(1) South Star (2) West Star (3) East Star (4) North Star
83. Maps showing specific information such as Rainfall maps, Highway maps, etc are known as _____ maps.
(1) Relief (2) Political (3) Thematic (4) Symbolic
84. Calcium deficiency mainly occurs in the absence of which vitamin?
(1) Vitamin D (2) Vitamin B6
(3) Vitamin C (4) Vitamin A
85. In which type of venation design is vet-like on both sides of the mid-rib?
(1) Reticulate Venation (2) Parallel Venation
(3) Transpiration (4) None of these
86. In a closed circulatory system, blood is completely enclosed within __________.
(1) the skeleton (2) Sinuses
(3) Blood Vessels (4) Heart
87. A photocell converts light energy into __________.
(1) chemical energy (2) electrical energy
(3) potential energy (4) kinetic energy
88. A flying aeroplane has _______.
(1) only potential energy (2) only kinetic energy
(3) both potential and kinetic energy (4) neither potential nor kinetic
89. What is the full form HTTP?
(1) Hyper Text Transfer Protocol (2) Hyper Text Textual Protocol
(3) Hyper Test Transfer Protocol (4) Hyper Text Transfer Program
90. What is obtained on adding quick lime to H2O?
(1) Lime water (2) lime stone
(3) Slaked lime (4) None of these
91. pH of lemon juice is 4, that means it is _____.
(1) Basic (2) Acidic
(3) Neutral (4) None of these
92. How do forests mainly help the soil from being washed away or eroded?
(1) By the roots of trees in forests that binds the soil
(2) By maintaining steady supply of water
(3) By maintaining water table
(4) None of these
93. Which article of Indian constitution is related to the formation of new states?
(1) Article 9 (2) Article 12 (3) Article 3 (4) Article 22
94. Who among the following was the main contributer in building and improvising Telescopes?
(1) Edison (2) Newton (3) Galileo (4) Marconi
95. In which year India hosted the Commonwealth Games?
(1) 2010 (2) 2014 (3) 2016 (4) 2012
96. Which among the following dances incorporates martial arts steps and techniques?
(1) Mohiniyattam (2) Odissi (3) Chhau (4) Kuchipudi
97. In India, the power to declare war against another country is vested in
a. President b. Prime Minister
c. Defence Minister Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(1) Only c (2) Both a and c (3) Both a and b (4) Only a
98. ____ designed in 1971 is generally considered as the first computer virus.
(1) Maurice (2) Creeper (3) Melisa (4) Trojan Horse
99. "Sir Creek Issue" is a issue between India and __________.
(1) China (2) Pakistan (3) Afghanistan (4) Japan
100. Gulf of Mannar separates India with which of its neighbouring countries?
(1) Sri Lanka (2) Bangladesh (3) Pakistan (4) Maldives
ANSWERS
1. (2) 2. (4) 3. (2) 4. (2) 5. (3) 6. (3) 7. (1) 8. (3) 9. (4) 10. (1)
11. (3) 12. (2) 13. (1) 14. (3) 15. (4) 16. (2) 17. (1) 18. (3)
19. (2) 20. (2) 21. (1) 22. (2) 23. (3) 24. (1) 25. (2) 26. (1)
27. (3) 28. (1) 29. (2) 30. (3) 31. (1) 32. (1) 33. (4) 34. (1) 35. (1) 36. (3) 37. (4) 38. (1) 39. (4) 40. (2) 41. (3) 42. (2) 43. (4) 44. (1) 45. (2) 46. (2) 47. (2) 48. (1) 49. (4) 50. (3) 51. (2) 52. (1) 53. (4) 54. (1) 55. (4) 56. (1) 57. (4) 58. (1) 59. (4) 60. (4) 61. (4) 62. (1) 63. (3) 64. (2) 65. (2) 66. (4) 67. (1) 68. (4) 69. (1) 70. (3) 71. (3) 72. (1) 73. (2) 74. (4) 75. (2) 76. (4) 77. (1) 78. (2) 79. (3) 80. (2) 81. (2) 82. (4) 83. (3) 84. (1) 85. (1) 86. (3) 87. (2) 88. (3) 89. (1) 90. (3) 91. (2) 92. (1) 93. (3) 94. (3) 95. (1) 96. (3) 97. (4) 98. (2) 99. (2) 100. (1)
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